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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

11.06.2025 03:20

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

How can someone determine if their partner is in another romantic relationship, particularly if they do not live together?

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Is it okay to pay 12,000 SEK for rent 67m² furnished house for 2 people in Jönköping, Sweden? It also includes electricity, internet, heating, and water expenses.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What are some photos of masturbation?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.